2014年2月27日星期四

IBM 000-274, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 000-274
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 A company-wide Certificate Authority (CA) provides its internal CA root and intermediary
certificates to the solution implementer to use for the creation of Validation Credentials that
validates several back end servers using SSL. The two lines of business in the company provide
services on two different domains on DataPower and two different banks of servers on the back
end. The requirement is to share a single copy of the CA certificates to create validation
credentials in two domains for both the lines of business to simplify maintenance. How can the
solution implementer satisfy the requirement?
A. Store the CA certificates in the sharedcert: folder from the default domain.
B. Store the CA certificates in the store:///cert folder from the default domain.
C. Create Validation Credentials in the default domain so it can be shared across all the domains.
D. Store the certificate in the cert: folder in any of the two domains and mark the certificate as
shared.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A solution implementer needs to create a new service on a DataPower virtual appliance. The new server needs to virtualize the back end server IP address from the end user while exposing
operations of a web service described by a given WSDL. Service Level Monitoring (SLM) is also to
be incorporated at the port level. Which service type should the solution implementer configure?
A. XML Firewall
B. Web Service Proxy
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company wants to enforce the run-time SOA governance using service level agreement (SLA)
and service level definitions (SLD) policy attachments for a line of business. The solution
implementer has configured a web service proxy service that uses a WebSphere Service Registry
and Repository (WSRR) subscription to meet this requirement. The WSRR server hosts the
governance enablement profile that contains SLA and SLD entities. The SLA objects in WSRR are
in SLA Active State. During a test run, it was identified that SLA policies from WSRR are not
enforced. How can the solution implementer resolve this situation to enforce SLA policies?
(choose 2) Verify that the:
A. SLA policies are accurate using probe.
B. SLA Enforcement Mode is set as "reject".
C. WSRR server object is set to version 7.5 or later.
D. WS-Policy Enforcement Mode is set as "enforce".
E. Fetch Policy Attachments option for the WSRR Subscription is set as "on".
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 A web service proxy is receiving orders from partners as SOAP messages. The service is
required
to reject messages if the total order cost in the message does not match the sum of the individual
item costs. What can the solution implementer do to support this requirement?
A. Create an XML Schema that enforces the above business requirements and uses this schema
in a Validate action.
B. Create a style sheet which performs the mathematical comparison and uses either a
<dp:accept> or <dp:reject>, and use this in a Filter action.
C. Configure an SLM Statement with the Threshold Level that computes the total order cost, and if
it does not match the total value then throttlethe transaction.
D. Define the requirement in a WS-Policy attachment for the service. The web service proxy will
then automatically perform the mathematicalcomparison and reject any invalid messages.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A financial services company (Company) is using a DataPower appliance to securely access an
external service provider (Partner) that processes SOAP/HTTPS payment transactions and
returns the responses to the requesting application in the Company with payment confirmations.
The Partner requires that Company establish non-repudiation so that the financial services
company cannot deny that the payment transaction was originated by them. The Company
requires that the confirmation sent back from the Partner also requires non-repudiation. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing Company public certificate and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingPartner private key
B. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing the private key of Partner and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingCompany public certificate
C. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the Company private key and Response
Rule must Verify with crypto object containingPartner public certificate
D. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the public certificate of Partner and
Response Rule must Verify with crypto objectcontaining Company private key
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-641
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational robot)
Questions et réponses: 54 Q&As

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NO.1 Verification points can be renamed after the script is recorded.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

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NO.2 How can a synchronization failure between the test script and the application be corrected?
(Select all that apply.)
A.Use external data files.
B.Use a wait state.
C.Adjust delays between commands.
D.View data with the Comparators.
E.Customize test log messages.
Correct:B C

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NO.3 Given: You have minimized the Robot main window during recording and you are using the
default keyboard mappings. Which of the following procedures will bring the Robot main window
back to the foreground? (Select all that apply.)
A.Press F5 .
B.Click Robot on the Windows taskbar.
C.Click Open Robot Window on the GUI Record toolbar.
D.Use the hot key combination CTRL+SHIFT+F .
Correct:B C D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the Object Properties verification point type?
A.To compare the properties of a window; e.g. normal, minimized, maximized, or hidden
B.To capture and compare properties of standard Windows objects
C.To compare the properties of the application; e.g. control location, menu options, etc.
D.To test data in Windows objects that contain text; for example, pushbuttons and labels
Correct:B

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NO.5 What aspect of the By Location identification method is used with an Object Data verification
point?
A.Screen and pixel coordinate locations
B.User-defined DLL locations
C.Columns and Rows By Locations
D.Value and Key By Locations
Correct:C

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IBM 000-417 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-417
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two roles must be assigned to a user to complete the configuration of Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. data administrator
B. project administrator
C. database administrator
D. production administrator
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Which three methods can be used to review the results of domain analysis? (Choose three.)
A. Examine each value individually.
B. Specify a range to determine the validity of the values.
C. Compare all of the values to the values in a reference table.
D. Specify a conditional test to determine the validity of the values.
E. Create an automated script to check the validity of values based on business requirements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 You have an Information Analyzer installation in an environment where multiple servers and multiple
operating systems are available.
Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)
A. all layers on one RedHat Linux server
B. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server
C. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on another RedHat Linux
server
D. Domain layer on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server, Repository layer on
another AIX UNIX server
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Which architectural component applies to both Information Analyzer and AuditStage?
A. XMeta
B. domain
C. client interface
D. parallel engine
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company has determined a need for profiling a centralized data warehouse for business intelligence
reporting.
During the initial client discovery session, which three initial questions should be addressed? (Choose
three.)
A. Which data marts are generated?
B. Which data sources are contributors?
C. Which underlying issues are suspected?
D. Which users are subject matter experts?
E. Which are the referential integrity violations?
Answer: BCD

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NO.6 A company has embarked on the implementation of a centralized data warehouse.
Data Quality Assessment will be addressed at which two points in the implementation project? (Choose
two.)
A. periodically during post-implementation
B. during the initial project plan development
C. during the analysis phase before actual design begins
D. during acceptance testing conducted after construction but before the warehouse is turned over for use
Answer: CD

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NO.7 Which two statements are true when importing metadata describing a data source? (Choose two.)
A. Column definitions can be changed by the user during import.
B. Metadata can be discovered by using the Identify Next Level function.
C. Discovered metadata is automatically imported into the analysis database.
D. Metadata for table and column definitions can be discovered using the Identify All Levels function.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 Which method should be used to estimate disk space to store frequency distributions for a given
column based on the volume of data to be profiled?
A. Multiply the number of distinct values by 2000.
B. Multiply the total number of columns and the total number of rows.
C. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum column format size
plus 150.
D. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum number of formats plus
150.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Given a review of a new column analysis, which review processes must be completed in sequence?
A. domain analysis, then format analysis
B. format analysis, then properties analysis
C. domain analysis, then rebuild inferences
D. properties analysis, then classification analysis
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which analysis builds a complete set of all the column pairs between primary key columns and
remaining selected columns in selected tables?
A. column analysis
B. foreign key analysis
C. cross table analysis
D. primary key analysis
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two connectors are automatically available when defining a data source to Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. ODBCConnector
B. JDBCConnector
C. DataStageConnector
D. WebSphereMQConnector
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which three steps must be completed to make a data source available for analysis in Information
Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. Define a host computer.
B. Import the source metadata.
C. Import a sample set of source records.
D. Define an ODBC connection to the data source.
E. Define an ODBC connection to the IADB repository.
Answer: ABD

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NO.13 For a data quality assessment project, which three roles are involved throughout the assessment?
(Choose three.)
A. data modeler
B. data analyst
C. ETL developer
D. business analyst
E. business subject matter expert
Answer: BDE

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NO.14 Which statement is true with regards to publishing analysis results?
A. Reference tables can be created then published and accessed using QualityStage.
B. Categories can be created then published and accessed using Business Glossary.
C. The accepted primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using DataStage.
D. The candidate primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using Business Glossary.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What are two architectural components of AuditStage? (Choose two.)
A. client interface
B. parallel execution engine
C. internal or external database
D. common services connector
Answer: AC

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NO.16 What must be installed prior to AuditStage?
A. .NET Framework
B. Information Server
C. Java Run-time Environment
D. Microsoft Data Access Components
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three steps must be performed to tell Information Analyzer where data is located? (Choose
three.)
A. Define a host.
B. Define a project.
C. Define a data store.
D. Define a data connection.
E. Define analysis settings.
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 When planning a data quality assessment project, application owners have expressed reluctance to
provide real-time access to their source systems using Information Analyzer.
Which two concepts should be discussed and understood by the assessment team? (Choose two.)
A. data standardization needed
B. data transformation rules needed
C. timeliness of data and its effect on structural metadata
D. timeliness of data and its effect on data assessment results
Answer: CD

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NO.19 What are two valid ways of connecting AuditStage to a database? (Choose two.)
A. JDBC
B. federation
C. Information Analyzer
D. direct database connection
Answer: BD

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NO.20 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use DB2 as the analysis database, which statement
is true?
A. The analysis database is automatically created at installation.
B. You must install the analysis database after you install the suite.
C. The analysis database DSN is automatically created at installation.
D. You must configure the analysis database before you install the suite.
Answer: A

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IBM meilleur examen 000-734, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-734
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 Advanced DB Administrator for Linux,UNIX,and Windows)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which data organization schemes are supported?
A. PARTITION BY HASH and ORGANIZE BY
B. PARTITION BY RANGE and ORGANIZE BY KEY SEQUENCE
C. PARTITION BY HASH and ORGANIZE BY KEY SEQUENCE
D. PARTITION BY RANGE and ORGANIZE BY
Answer: D

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NO.2 A database administrator needs to update a table named TRANSACT by removing February 2005 data
and replacing it with February 2007 data. What are the proper steps, in the correct order, required to
accomplish this?
A. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
'02/01/2007' ENDING '02/28/2007' FROM new table 4) SET INTEGRITY FOR transact
B. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
'01/01/2007' ENDING '02/28/2007' FROM new table 4) SET INTEGRITY FOR transact
C. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
'02/01/2007' ENDING '02/28/2007' FROM new table 4) RUNSTATS ON TABLE transact
D. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
'02/01/2007' ENDING '02/28/2007' FROM new table 4) REORG TABLE transact
Answer:A

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NO.3 If the sort heap threshold parameter SHEAPTHRES_SHR is set to a value of 0, what will happen?
A. All sorts will be done in a temporary table space.
B. The shared sort memory allocation will be calculated by DB2.
C. No shared memory is allocated for sorting.
D. All sorts will be done in shared memory.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A database administrator wants to design a multi-partition database that can take advantage of both
intra-partition parallelism and inter-partition parallelism. Which configuration will allow the use of these
types of parallelism while using the least number of hardware components (servers, processors)?
A. one server having at least two processors
B. two servers having one processor and one logical database partition
C. one server having four processors and two logical database partitions
D. two servers each having four processors and two logical database partitions
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-734   000-734   000-734

NO.5 What would indicate intra-partition parallelism in an Optimizer Plan?
A. BTQ
B. LTQ
C. IP
D. DTQ
Answer: B

IBM   000-734 examen   certification 000-734   certification 000-734

NO.6 Which server houses the database partitions in the AIX BCU V2.1?
A. IBM System p5 570
B. IBM System p5 575
C. IBM System p5 590
D. IBM System p5 595
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-734 examen   000-734 examen   000-734

NO.7 A database administrator needs to create a table with key columns C1 (i.e. YearDay), C2, and C3. This
table needs tobe partitioned by column C1 with three months per data partition. Additionally, data needs
to be organized by columns C2 and C3, so that all rows within any three month date range are clustered
together based on 12 months of data. Which CREATE TABLE statement will accomplish this objective?
A. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c2)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c2, c3))
B. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c1)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c2, c3))
C. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c1)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c2))
D. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c1)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c3))
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which action(s) will cause a compression dictionary to be removed from a table?
A. Set the table COMPRESS attribute to NO.
B. Set the table COMPRESS attribute to NO; run REORG against the table.
C. Set the table COMPRESS attribute to NO; run INSPECTRESETDICTIONARY against the table.
D. Set the table COMPRESS attribute to NO; run RUNSTATS against the table.
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-734   000-734

NO.9 Which procedure will successfully configure the memory areas within a database, including buffer
pools, to use the Self Tuning Memory Manager (STMM)?
A. 1) Set the SELF_TUNING_MEM database configuration parameter to ON.2) Set the relevant
configuration parameters within the database configuration file to AUTOMATIC. 3) Use the ALTER
BUFFERPOOL command to change the size of all buffer pools to AUTOMATIC.
B. 1) Set the SELF_TUNING_MEM database configuration parameter to ON.2) Use the ALTER
BUFFERPOOL command to change the size of all buffer pools to AUTOMATIC.
C. 1) Set the SELF_TUNING_MEM database configuration parameter to ON.
Answer:A

IBM   certification 000-734   certification 000-734   000-734

NO.10 A database administrator would like to examine repartitioning options for a partitioned database named
PRODDB. A workload has been captured on the system (Windows) and is stored in a file named
WORKLOAD.SQL. What is the proper command to run the Design Advisor so that it will evaluate the
information stored in the file and give advice on re-partitioning?
A. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -P
B. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -partitioning
C. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -m P
D. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -m ALL
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-734 examen   000-734 examen   000-734

NO.11 Given a SHEAPTHRES value of 2560, in which two cases will a SHEAPTHRES_SHR value of 1024
be meaningful? (Choose two.)
A. INTRA_PARALLEL NO
B. MAX_CONNECTIONS 2000, MAX_COORDAGENTS 100
C. MAX_AGENTS 100, MAX_CONNECTIONS 2000
D. MAX_CONNECTIONS 500, MAX_COORDAGENTS 1000
E. INTRA_PARALLEL YES
Answer: BE

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NO.12 Table TAB1 was created using the following statement: CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT, c2 INT, c3 INT,
c4 INT, c5 INT); If column C1 is unique and queries typically access columns C1, C2 and C3 together,
which statement(s) will createindex(es) that will provide optimal query performance?
A. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c1); CREATE INDEX xtab2 ON tab1 (c2) INCLUDE (c3);
B. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c1) INCLUDE (c2, c3);
C. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c3, c2, c1);
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c2) INCLUDE (c1, c3);
Answer: B

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NO.13 A batch application executes a large number of update statements. The service level agreement for
the application states that the application must complete its work as quickly as possible to ensure that
dependent workloads can start ontime. What is one way to help the application complete quickly?
A. Code the application to issue a LOCK TABLE statement.
B. Code the application to issue a LOCK ROW statement.
C. Decrease the number of I/O servers.
D. Increase the locklist parameter.
Answer:A

IBM   000-734   000-734   000-734

NO.14 When is the connection concentrator enabled?
A. When the value of MAX_CONNECTIONS is greater than the value of MAX_COORDAGENTS.
B. When the value of MAX_AGENTS is greater than the value of MAX_CLIENTS.
C. When the value of NUM_AGENTS is greater than the value of MAX_AGENTS.
D. When the value of NUM_CONNECTIONS is greater than the value of NUM_COORDAGENTS.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which registry variable should be set to keep the buffer pools in memory on AIX and Linux?
A. DB2_KEEP_BP
B. DB2_PINNED_BP
C. DB2MEMDISCLAIM
D. DB2MEMMAXFREE
Answer: B

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NO.16 When a database administrator chooses the dimensions for an MDC table, which two characteristics
should beconsidered? (Choose two.)
A. the query transaction rate
B. numeric data versus character data
C. extent size
D. the cardinality of the candidate columns
E. prefetch size
Answer: CD

IBM examen   certification 000-734   000-734   000-734   000-734

NO.17 If the ADD DBPARTITIONNUM command is used to add a new database partition to an existing DB2
instance,which statement is correct?
A. All existing databases in the instance are expanded to the new database partition but data cannot be
stored on the newpartition until it has been added to a partition group.
B. Database partition groups within existing databases will automatically include the new database
partition and willredistribute their existing data to the new partition.
C. Any single partition databases within the instance will automatically become multi-partition databases
once the newpartition is added to the instance.
D. A database administrator would need to modify the db2nodes.cfg file to complete the addition of the
new partition tothe instance.
Answer:A

IBM   000-734   000-734   000-734   000-734

NO.18 Table TAB1 was created using the following statement: CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT, c2 INT, c3 INT,
c4 INT, c5 INT); If column C1 is unique and queries typically access columns C1 and C2 together, which
statement(s) will create index(es) that will provide optimal query performance?
A. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c1) include (c2);
B. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c1);
CREATE INDEX xtab2 ON tab1 (c3) INCLUDE (c2);
C. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c2, c1);
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c2) INCLUDE (c1);
Answer:A

IBM examen   000-734 examen   000-734 examen   000-734 examen

NO.19 In which two environments would intra-partition parallelism be used? (Choose two.)
A. Single database partition, single processor
B. Single database partition, multiple processors
C. Multiple database partitions, single processor
D. Multiple database partitions, multiple processors
Answer: BD

IBM examen   000-734   certification 000-734   certification 000-734   000-734 examen

NO.20 Which statement is true about clustering indexes in a DPF environment?
A. The partitioning key columns should be added to all indexes with the INCLUDE option.
B. It is not possible to have a clustering index in a DPF environment.
C. The index columns should be prefixed by the partitioning key columns.
D. The partitioning key columns should be added immediately after the column in the index with the
highest cardinality.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-R18
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM SurePOS ACE V5 Technical Professional)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 The following percentage tax plans are set up with conventional rounding: 1=4% 2=1.5% 3=.5%
4=not set up The item record for item 81382 has: Tax Plan A [*] Tax Plan B [ ] Tax Plan C [*] Tax
Plan D [ ] The item record for 81382 has a unit price of $3.00. How much tax will be charged for
selling quantity 1 of 81382?
A. 12 cents
B. 13 cents
C. 14 cents
D. 19 cents
Answer: C

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NO.2 Tender verification is supported through ACE's implementation of which of the following files?
A. Customer File
B. Tender Listing File
C. Tender Verification File
D. Customer Account Status file
Answer: C

IBM   000-R18   000-R18 examen

NO.3 The immediate override limit applies to limits specified in which of the following options?
A. Price Override and Item Limits
B. Transaction Limits and Item Limits
C. Price Override and Department Groups
D. Transaction Limits and Department Groups
Answer: C

IBM   000-R18 examen   000-R18 examen   certification 000-R18

NO.4 After displaying the food stamp total during an order, which of the following statements is true?
A. Amount of food stamps tendered is displayed.
B. No tax amounts can be included in the amount displayed.
C. Additional food stamp ineligible items cannot be entered.
D. Food stamps can only be tendered for the amount displayed.
Answer: D

IBM   000-R18   000-R18

NO.5 Which of the following CANNOT be performed at both the terminal and controller?
A. Cashier Loan
B. Terminal Monitor
C. Cashier Reconciliation
D. Department Totals Report
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-R18   000-R18 examen

NO.6 SurePOS ACE verifies tenders by checking the account number entered during the transaction against
the:
A. Customer Data file.
B. Tender Listing file.
C. Customer Activity file.
D. Tender Verification file.
Answer: D

IBM   000-R18   000-R18 examen   000-R18 examen   000-R18

NO.7 The item record for a bottle of soda in Department 4 has its linked item field filled in with 1234, and has
its Links To Deposit flag turned on. Item 1234 is designated as a Deposit Item type with a value of 10
cents. If 10 bottles of soda are sold during the day, where does the total deposit amount get reflected in
the Department Totals Report?
A. In the report's Deposits category
B. In the Total Sales for Department 4
C. In the Total Sales for the department shown for item 1234
D. In the Total Sales for the designated department for deposits
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-R18   000-R18 examen   000-R18

NO.8 How many varieties can each ACE tender have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-R18   000-R18 examen   000-R18   000-R18

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Code d'Examen: 000-015
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about a characteristic meter in the Condition Monitoring application?
A.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to an ALN domain. When an action value is recorded,
a Job Plan or a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
B.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to either an ALN or a Numeric domain. When an
action value is recorded, a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
C.An upper limit and a lower limit can be entered. When the last measurement is outside of these limits, a
Preventive Maintenance (PM) can be used to generate a Work Order.
D.When an action value is recorded, a Work Order can be generated using the specified Job Plan. Only
one of the values in the ALN domain can be used as an action value.
Answer: A

IBM   000-015 examen   000-015

NO.2 What is a seasonal-based Preventive Maintenance (PM) record?
A.a PM that defines a period when the PM status is made inactive
B.a PM that defines the specific dates in the future upon which Work Order will be generated
C.a PM with a set of defined days of week or periods of time in a year when the PM is considered active
and is eligible for Work Order generation
D.a PM that defines the days of the week when a Work Order can be generated (for example, Saturday -
Sunday when the production line has stopped)
Answer: C

IBM   000-015   000-015   000-015 examen

NO.3 When can Material Receipts be changed if inspection is not required?
A.prior to saving the Receipt Line
B.prior to inspecting the Receipt Line
C.prior to approving the Receipt Line
D.prior to completing the Receipt Line
Answer: A

IBM   000-015   certification 000-015   000-015   certification 000-015

NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
The diagram in the exhibit shows a dialog box that opens when the Select Value option is selected from
the Asset or Location field on a Service Request. The Filter By field has three options User/Custodian,
Public and All.
In which application can the default for this field be changed?
A.Organizations
B.Service Requests
C.Application Designer
D.Database Configuration
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-015   000-015

NO.5 From which three applications is it possible to create a Work Order? (Choose three.)
A.Assets
B.Routes
C.Job Plan
D.Work View
E.Configuration Items
F.Condition Monitoring
Answer: AEF

certification IBM   000-015   000-015   000-015 examen

NO.6 Which statement about an Asset hierarchy is correct?
A.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy from the Spare Parts tab when
the parent Asset is the current record.
B.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy as long as the parent is a
rotating Asset, it is not decommissioned, and it is not in a storeroom.
C.An Asset hierarchy can be created from rotating and non-rotating Assets and can be set so that the
hierarchy can not be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset application.
D.An Asset hierarchy can only be created from rotating Assets using the action Apply Item Assembly
Structure. The hierarchy can be locked so that it cannot be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset
application.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-015   000-015   000-015   000-015   000-015

NO.7 Which applications record the history of attribute changes made on the Specifications tab, without
having to use e-Audit as defined in Database Configuration?
A.Asset, Configuration Item
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template
C.Item Master, Service Item, Tool, Job Plan
D.Asset, Location, Item Master, Service Item, Tool
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-015   certification 000-015   000-015 examen

NO.8 Which three statements are true about using the Move/Modify Assets or Swap Assets actions in the
Assets application? (Choose three.)
A.Any Asset can be moved to any site
B.Multiple Assets cannot be moved to another site in one action.
C.An Asset cannot be moved to another site if the Asset number already exists at that site.
D.Multiple Assets can be moved to the same Location or make these Assets a child of another Asset.
E.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved from one Location to another in the same site by selecting just the
top parent Asset.
F.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved into a storeroom by selecting just the top parent Asset, if all Assets
in the hierarchy are rotating.
Answer: DEF

IBM   000-015 examen   000-015 examen

NO.9 Which record type(s) can belong to a Collection?
A.Users
B.Asset, Location, Item
C.Asset, Location, Configuration Item
D.Asset, Actual Configuration Item, Deployed Asset, Configuration Item
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-015   certification 000-015

NO.10 Where are Ticket Templates used?
A.Work Requests
B.Service Requests
C.Desktop Requisitions
D.Work Order Tracking
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-015   000-015   certification 000-015

NO.11 Which statement is correct?
A.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Asset, Location and Configuration Item (CI)
applications.
B.A Service Request, Incident, Problem, Work Order, Change or Release in the Assets, Locations and CI
applications can be created.
C.A Service Request or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications. A Ticket
or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
D.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications, but you
can not create an activity or task. A Ticket or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
Answer: B

IBM   000-015   000-015 examen   certification 000-015   000-015   000-015

NO.12 What is the purpose of a Condition Rate?
A.to create alternate paths in Workflows
B.to assign relative values to inventory items
C.to assign values to personnel for labor purposes
D.to indicate the costs associated with inventory items
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-015   000-015   000-015 examen   certification 000-015

NO.13 The appropriate status to invoke a Preventive Maintenance (PM) alert has been determined to be in the
Organization application.
What is the Select Action menu item where this can be set?
A.PM options
B.Asset options
C.System settings
D.Work Order options
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement is correct?
A.A condition code can be used on any rotating Asset.
B.A condition code can be added to any type of Asset.
C.A condition code can only be used on a rotating Asset when the item is condition enabled.
D.There is no condition code on an Asset. Condition codes are only associated with items that are
purchased or held in a storeroom.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-015   000-015   certification 000-015

NO.15 Which field(s) are hidden on the Asset application and may need the Application Designer in order to
display them?
A.Priority
B.Failure Class
C.Calendar and Shift Number
D.GL Account, Warranty Expiry Date
Answer: D

IBM   000-015   000-015

NO.16 Which three objects have rotating records? (Choose three.)
A.Person
B.Assets
C.Locations
D.Job Plans
E.Item Master
F.Service Items
Answer: BCE

IBM examen   000-015   certification 000-015   000-015 examen   000-015

NO.17 What are the three main differences between the functions of the Move/Modify Assets and Swap
Assets actions in the Assets application and the Move/Swap/Modify action in the Work Order Tracking
application? (Choose three.)
A.Future Asset moves can be planned in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
B.Downtime can be applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
C.Meter readings for Assets and Locations can be entered in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
D.The specification records of a Location or a Configuration Item can be modified in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
E.Future changes to the user and custodian records of Assets and Locations can be planned in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
F.Modifications can be made to the fields, priority, failure class, calendar and shift and changes can be
applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
Answer: ADE

IBM   000-015   000-015   000-015   000-015   000-015

NO.18 Which Asset fields must have data for the record to be saved to the database?
A.Site, Location, Type
B.Site, Status, Location
C.Site, Status, Asset Up?
D.Status, Location, Failure Class
Answer: C

IBM   000-015 examen   000-015 examen   certification 000-015   000-015

NO.19 Where can a Meter Group be referenced?
A.Asset, Location, Rotating Item
B.Asset, Item Master, Service Item, Tools
C.Asset, Location, Preventive Maintenance
D.Asset, Preventive Maintenance, Condition Monitoring
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-015   000-015   000-015   000-015   000-015

NO.20 Which statement is correct?
A.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to any storeroom by specifying a Location and rotating
item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
B.To add a rotating Asset to a storeroom, use the Inventory application and then use the Inventory
Adjustments - Current Balance action to increment the balance by one.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to a specific site's storeroom by specifying a Location
and rotating item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
D.When creating an Asset that will be initially held in a storeroom, the user creates the Asset then goes to
the Storeroom application in order to book it into a specific storeroom so that the balance is incremented
by one.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-015   000-015 examen   000-015 examen   000-015 examen

NO.21 Which statement is true about the Users and Custodians functionality?
A.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets. A User is someone who uses the Asset. A Custodian
is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. For each person entered, the User field, the Custodian
field or both must be checked. One person can be nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset.
B.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the Asset
or Location. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset or Location. For each person
entered, either the User field or the Custodian field or both fields must be checked. One person can be
nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset or Location.
C.User and Custodians can be created for Assets, Locations and Configuration Items (CIs). The dialog
box has a table window for creating Users and Custodians and another for creating Primary Contacts who
are used for communicating information about the Asset, Location or CI by email or bulletin board. A
person can be a user or a custodian, or both a user and a custodian.
D.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the
Asset. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. The Primary Contact is used for
communicating information about the Asset or Location by email or bulletin board. These three fields act
like a radio button, only one of them can be checked on each person record.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-015   000-015 examen

NO.22 Which statement is true about Asset hierarchies?
A.A hierarchy of Assets can only be created by using the actions: Apply Item Assembly Structure and
Move/Modify Assets.
B.There are numerous ways of creating or modifying an Asset hierarchy including planning and then
executing a group of Asset moves from the Ticket-based applications.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be assigned a parent Asset. After the record is saved, the hierarchy can
be created from the Spare Parts tab or the action Move/Modify Assets.
D.Asset hierarchies can only be formed for rotating Assets. The most popular methods of creating the
hierarchy are to use the action Apply Item Assembly Structure and Move/Modify Assets in the Asset
application and Move/Swap/Modify in the Work Order Tracking application.
Answer: C

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NO.23 When creating a purchase contract, what is the purpose of checking the Change Price on Use field?
A.It specifies that the price in the purchase order (PO) is only an estimated price.
B.It specifies that when a PO is issued against this contract, the price must be changed.
C.It specifies that the price of a given related item can be changed on related POs or purchase requests.
D.It specifies that the price of a given item specified in the Master Contract is reduced or increased, based
on market conditions.
Answer: C

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NO.24 What is a Failure Code hierarchy?
A.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Work Classification
B.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on an Asset Classification
C.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Failure Classification
D.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Location Classification
Answer: C

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NO.25 What are the three types of meters?
A.Flow, Utility, Rate
B.Condition, Utility, Gauge
C.Continuous, Condition, Rate
D.Continuous, Gauge, Characteristic
Answer: D

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NO.26 An attribute is added to a ClassStructure record in the Classifications application.
On which applications will the attribute be copied to existing records that use this classification?
A.Assets, Item, Locations
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template, Item
C.all applications that have a Specifications tab
D.Assets, Item, Job Plan, Preventive Maintenance
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which item type(s) can be used as a rotating item on both an Asset and a Location?
A.Item only
B.Item and Tool only
C.Item, Service Item, Tool
D.Item and Service Item only
Answer: B

IBM   000-015   000-015

NO.28 Which statement is correct?
A.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is always updateable.
B.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the
item specification.
C.The classification of a rotating Asset can be entered by the user and the Asset specification is derived
from the classification you enter. The value of an attribute can be entered by the user. There is no
relationship with the item specification.
D.The classification of a rotating Asset is enterable only if its rotating item has no classification of its own.
When the classification has been entered by the user on the Asset, the attribute values are updateable.
Otherwise, they are read-only and are determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the item
specification.
Answer: B

IBM   000-015 examen   000-015

NO.29 Which statement about Condition Monitoring is the most accurate?
A.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. Before creating these
points, a meter of type Gauge or Characteristic must be defined.
B.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The meter type of these points will
be Gauge. A meter does not need to be created as this is created automatically.
C.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The Asset's current location is
provided as a reference. The point type needs to be specified as Gauge or Characteristic before entering
other details.
D.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. As each point is created,
a Gauge type meter for the measurements to be recorded against needs to be created. Characteristic
meters are not set up in Condition Monitoring, but on the Job Plan.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 000-671
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Systems Networking Sales V1)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 A Proxy server is an example of what server type?
A. Centralized
B. Client/server
C. Device sharing
D. Web
Answer: D

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NO.2 An ISP requires an ultra-dense 2-way high performance rack server to provide as
much capacity as possible in a crowded data center. The budget is tight so total cost
of ownership is a consideration. The customer needs a solution that is easy to install
and configure, and which makes adding or replacing servers simple. Which one of
the following IBM xSeries servers would best meet these requirements?
A. xSeries 305
B. xSeries 335
C. xSeries 345
D. xSeries 360
Answer: B

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NO.3 Capacity Manager ServeRaid Manager and cluster Systems Management are
comprehensive tools provided by which IBM Director feature?
A. Update Connector
B. Resource Monitoring
C. Electronic Service Agent
D. Director Extensions
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which items from the following list are X-architecture Guiding Principles?
1- To drive and enhance industry standards
2- To make servers easier to service
3- To make servers easier to deploy and use
4- To make IBM servers easier to sell
5- To strive toward uninterrupted computing for intel processor-based servers
6- To lead the industry in driving down the cost of enterprise computing
A. 2,3,4,only
B. 1,3,5,6 only
C. 1,2,4,5, only
D. 2,5,6, only
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company wants to track applications installed on their network systems using a
dictionary file with many predefined software product files. They also want to
collect hardware and software data when a managed system is first discovered and
at reular intervals after that. Which of the following IBM Director features would
be used to perform this function?
A. Resource Monitoring
B. Inventory Management
C. Software DISTRIBUTION
D. DMI Browser
Answer: B

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NO.6 Ten members of the Research staff in a small company have individual dial-up
connections to the Internet. This is costing the company a lot of money. Which
server type would provide the BEST solution to reduce the cost of internet access,
and at the same time allow the company to better manage their wide area
connections?
A. A centralized file server with a single, high-speed internet connection, managed by a
member of the IT team who downloads the pages required by the Research Department.
B. A company-wide proxy server with a single high-speed internetconnection, providing
internet access to all staff in the Research Department.
C. A database server, using an off-line dial-up connection, which caches and sorts the
pages required by the Research Department
D. An HTTP server which downloads and mirrors the previous day page requests from
the Research Department
Answer: B

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NO.7 When comparing the high availability features of the xSeries 235 and xSeries 255
servers, which feature is a standard feature of the x235 ONLY?
A. Chipkill memory
B. Active PCI-X support
C. Hot swap hard disk drives
D. Integrated RAID-1 support
E. Integrated systems management processor
Answer: D

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NO.8 What LAN hardware device is used to connect two network or systems?. This device
is protocol-independent but hardware-specific.
A. Bridge
B. Ateway
C. Repeater
D. Router
Answer: A

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NO.9 The IBM Director function that allows administrators to use a command line
session to execute commands on the managed system is __________
A. File transfer
B. Process management
C. Remote session
D. Remote control
Answer: C

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NO.10 Web-based management, DNS/DHCP support and e-mail alerts are functions of the
IBM__________
A. Remote Supervisor adapter
B. Netfinity Advanced System Management PCI adapter
C. xSeries 225 interated System Management function
D. xSeries 345 integrated System Management processor.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two of the following IBM xSeries servers listed below are equipped with an
intel Pentium 4 processor?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 335
Answer: A,C

IBM examen   certification 000-671   000-671   000-671

NO.12 Which of the following is a RAID controller device that contains Fiber Channel
Interfaces to connect the host systems and disk drive enclosures?
A. EXP300
B. SAN FC Switch
C. FAST Storage Server
D. RXE-100 Remote Expansion Enclosure
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-671   000-671 examen

NO.13 The technology built into most IBM xSeries servers that can drastically reduce
service time by visually guiding the technician to a faulty component is called
A. IBM Director
B. Serverguide
C. Light-path diagnostics.
D. Predictive failure analysis.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two of the following allow RAID-5E to provide better protection than the
standard RAID-5?
A. Hot-space defined as part of the array
B. More than one logical drive in the array
C. Stripes data and parity across all of the drives in the array
D. Two drives in the array could fail, but not at the same time.
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 What is the maximum number of ASMPs and ASM asapters that can be configured
into one ASM Interconnect Network?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two 2 of the following IBM xSeries servers include a standard ISMP, and can
upgrade system management capabilities by installing a Remote Supervisor
Adapter?
A. xSeries 225
B. xSeries 235
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 345
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 When comparing the IBM ServeRAID-4Mx and ServRAID-4Lx adapters, which
feature is available on the ServeRAID-4Mx ONLY?
A. Ultra 160 SCSI
B. Dual Address Cycle (DAC)
C. 64-bit PCI 2.2 at 66/33 MHz interface
D. 64 MB battery-backed ECC data cache memory
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-671   000-671   000-671   000-671

NO.18 Which IBM xSeries server is an affordable entry-level uniprocessor server with
rack-mount support provided by an optional rack conversion ket?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 335
D. xSeries 345
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following system management functions is supported only by the
Remote Supervisor Adapter
A. e-mail alerts
B. Generate SNMP traps
C. IBM Director via LAN
D. Automatic shutdown/restart
Answer: A

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NO.20 How many of the IBM xSeries 345 server PCI expansion slots are Active PCI slots?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: COG-480
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 Planning Professional)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of providing an initial delivery to end-users which addresses only 80 to 90% of their
needs?
A. The users will be content with a solution that addresses most of their requirements.
B. The requirements can be completely changed and still finished in time.
C. The solution can more easily be fine-tuned through iterative development.
D. The solution can be completed through sequential steps and in time.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the benefit of using a methodology when developing an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution?
A. Allows accurate and complete development.
B. Allows development to be started before users are consulted.
C. Development can be done by less qualified consultants.
D. An iterative methodology can be used instead of waterfall.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why does using a methodology increase the chances of a project being successful?
A. Requirements do not have to be documented before a project is started.
B. Requirements can be changed throughout the project lifespan.
C. Development follows predetermined phases based on proven practice.
D. Development must be completed within predetermined timescales.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement describes how Proven Practices are created?
A. Proven Practice is driven by product management to provide strict guidelines for modelers.
B. Proven Practice is developed by a specialist team who understand how the products work.
C. A variety of teams input ideas based on how customers are effectively using the products.
D. Support personnel provide tips and techniques to customers to help them create effective models.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You identify that last year's actuals will be used as a basis for this year's plan. This data resides in a
database and will be loaded into Contributor. The data is very sensitive and security is important to the
customer. What are two solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Load from a Cognos package using the database as a source.
B. Use an ETL tool to load directly from the database avoiding the Copy and Load process.
C. Use the standard Copy, Load, and Prepare process in the Contributor administration console.
D. Load into Analyst and then export to a flat file and Copy, Load, and Prepare into Contributor.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 When developing an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution, when is prototyping most useful?
A. When the user requirements are unclear.
B. When the development team is very large.
C. When the client can afford the extra time and cost required.
D. When the solution is being implemented for a department other than Finance.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You implement an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution which fulfills the users' needs. Two years later the
performance of the Go To Production and Reconciliation processes take an unacceptable time to run.
What may have been overlooked in the original design phase?
A. the frequency that the planning process is run
B. the number of BI reports based on planning data
C. the increase in the number of e.List items with time
D. the volume of assumption data in the Analyst model
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are designing a production planning solution with IBM Cognos 8 Planning. Units will be input by the
regional production managers. Production rates for each factory are set centrally and do not change.
What is the primary consideration for the designer?
A. How easy will it be to update production rates.
B. How easy will it be to input units.
C. How quickly can assumption data be input.
D. How quickly can the list of factories be updated.
Answer: B

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NO.9 During the design phase of an IBM Cognos 8 Planning solution, the Planning and BI teams meet to
discuss the reporting requirements. Which proposed change must be discussed by the whole
implementation team?
A. The number of users who will consume reports based on Planning information.
B. The D-Lists that will be used to represent the measures in reports.
C. The D-Lists that will represent time in the planning application.
D. The number of users who will perform data entry into the planning application.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which aspect of the Waterfall approach makes it less appropriate to use for developing planning
applications?
A. There is no Analyze phase; the steps go from Plan directly to Design.
B. Steps are followed sequentially without returning to previous steps.
C. Technical constraints tend to overrule user requirements.
D. This approach can only be implemented using large teams.
Answer: B

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