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Code d'Examen: 132-S-911-3
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist IP Telephony Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 A company purchases the right to use Avaya IP Softphone for 100 stations. The users
complain that
the call center buttons (AUX, After-Call, Login, and Logout) programmed on their stations no
longer work
as expected. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A.TCP/UDP port blockage in the corporate WAN
B.improper administration of the stations in the PBX
C.users trying to use the application for non-supported functions
D.improper installation of the Avaya IP Softphone application on the users' PCs
Answer:C

Avaya   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3

NO.2 An Avaya IP phone is connected over a WAN link to the main office where the TN799
CLAN and
TN2302 IP Media Processor are located. The Avaya IP phone is registered properly on the
CLAN. A DCP
phone calls the Avaya IP phone and the call is answered. The audio quality is poor in both
directions, but
the call stays up until one of the users disconnects. Which two conditions cause this audio
quality problem?
(Choose two.)
A.insufficient IP media processor resources
B.use of the G.711 codec to transmit audio over the WAN link
C.implementing Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) on the edge router
D.intermittent connectivity between the Avaya IP phone and the CLAN
Answer:B C

Avaya   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3   certification 132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3   certification 132-S-911-3

NO.3 Which is a characteristic of a global VLAN ID?
A.must have at least five digits
B.can vary from one device to another
C.supports QoS between multi-vendor WAN/LANs
D.remains consistent across all VLAN tagging schemes
Answer:D

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NO.4 In an Enterprise Survivable Server (ESS) scenario, how do you save translations to
your ESS server?
A.save trans
B.save trans all
C.save ESS settings
D.save trans cluster ESS
Answer:B

Avaya   certification 132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3   certification 132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3

NO.5 Which two statements about VoIP Monitoring Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A.VoIP Monitoring Manager is a GUI-based tool that can chart historical graphs of audio
performance on
VoIP endpoints
B.VoIP Monitoring Manager can be used to troubleshoot VoIP endpoints registration
problems and call
signaling problems
C.the reporting interval of VoIP Monitoring Manager can be varied depending on the required
granularity
of the performance statistics
D.VoIP Monitoring Manager is a text-based tool that has the look and feel of a CLI and can
be embedded
into Cajun switches as an add-on feature
Answer:A C

Avaya   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3 examen   132-S-911-3 examen

NO.6 What color is the LED when a TN circuit pack is executing a test?
A.red
B.green
C.yellow
D.amber
Answer:C

Avaya examen   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3

NO.7 Which two Avaya Communication Manager commands display the VoIP statistics of a
specific extension
active on call? (Choose two.)
A.status station
B.display station
C.list trace station
D.display trace station
Answer:A C

Avaya   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3 examen   certification 132-S-911-3

NO.8 A customer has purchased 20 Avaya IP telephones over a period of three years.
Knowing that the IEEE
802.3af standard has been ratified, the customer decided to purchase a C360-PWR switch to
provide
in-line power to the IP telephones. However, only 15 of the phones power up when they are
connected to
the C360-PWR. Upon investigation you discover the five phones which would not receive
power from
C360-PWR are Generation 1 models that are not 802.3af compliant. Which three methods
should you
use to power these phones? (Choose three.)
A.356A adapter
B.individual power brick
C.1152A1 mid-span unit with adapter
D.other vendor 802.3af compliant device
E.IP phone 4600 Ethernet 30A base switch
Answer:B C E

Avaya examen   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3 examen

NO.9 Which two parameters are found in an H.323 Signaling Group form? (Choose two.)
A.QoS parameters
B.a default gateway
C.the far-end network region
D.a TN799 C-LAN for call signaling
Answer:C D

Avaya   132-S-911-3 examen   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3

NO.10 Your customer asks you to verify the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya
G700 Media
Gateway P330 stack management interface. Which command should you use to obtain this
information?
A.session stack
B.show interface
C.show interface mgp
D.show interface stack manager
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3 examen   132-S-911-3

NO.11 Your customer is unable to light message waiting lights at a small branch office using
a shared Intuity
voice mail system on a QSIG network running DCS. What is the first command you should
execute?
A.list ip-interfaces
B.list media-gateway
C.display-ip-network-region
D.status station
Answer:D

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3

NO.12 DHCP option codes 128 to 254 are reserved for site-specific options. A single number
out of this range
is commonly utilized by vendors to configure their Avaya IP phones via DHCP (Option 176).
Which
additional option code supports vendor-specific options?
A.3
B.23
C.43
D.63
Answer:C

Avaya   certification 132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3

NO.13 Which two statements are true about DHCP? (Choose two.)
A.a DHCP server is required to configure all Avaya IP telephones
B.a DHCP server can be used to send the DNS server address to the client
C.one DHCP server is required for each subnet containing clients that require the service
D.a DHCP server is used to send an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address
to the client
Answer:B D

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NO.14 You are working with the powerful concept of a network region section. Which three
parameters can be
set on the IP network region screen? (Choose three.)
A.H.323 endpoint
B.SIP enabled endpoints
C.hairpinning and shuffling
D.UDP port range parameters
E.QoS parameters such as DiffServ/TOS and 802.1p/Q
Answer:C D E

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NO.15 Which Communication Manager (CM) feature utilizes PSTN connectivity when IP WAN
bandwidth limit
has been reached?
A.Inter-Gateway Alternate Routing
B.Intra-Gigabit Analytical Resource
C.Intelligent Global Access Routing
D.Intelligent Gatekeeper Associated Routes
Answer:A

Avaya   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3

NO.16 You are migrating from a Definity server to an S8500/S87XX server. Where is the IPSI
board located?
A.It is always placed into slot number 1.
B.The location depends on which media server is used.
C.It can be slotted into any available media gateway slot.
D.The location depends on which media gateway is used.
Answer:D

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NO.17 A customer is using Avaya 4600 Series IP Telephones on an Avaya S87xx Server
using several
TN799DP (CLAN) and TN2302 (Medpro) cards. Telephones located at a remote site are
unable to
register with the CLAN. The CLAN can ping and be pinged. Which two commands or
troubleshooting
methods can identify the problem? (Choose two.)
A.list sys-link
B.status station
C.list trace ras station
D.use a network sniffer between the phone and the network
Answer:C D

certification Avaya   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3

NO.18 In an S87xx MultiConnect, Port Network 18 has no IPSI. Which command will show the
IPSI that is in
control of that Port Network?
A.Status fiber 18
B.List ipserver-interface
C.Status port-network 18
D.Status sys-link 18a0101 current
Answer:D

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NO.19 Within a single Avaya Communication Manager 4.0, how can you have conflicting four
digit extensions
for separate locations in a four digit plan?
A.you insert an additional digit on the incoming trunk group form
B.you enter a different UDP code on the dial plan analysis form and take it off in the incoming
trunk group
C.you enter an extra digit on the dial-plan analysis and delete a digit in the routing pattern
D.you enter X where x is the location number on the uniform dial plan and prefix an additional
first digit;
the changed number matches in AAR analysis and goes to a pattern
Answer:D

Avaya   132-S-911-3 examen   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3 examen

NO.20 You have an S8720 Server optioned for Software Duplication. Which Ethernet port is
the Duplication
Link assigned to?
A.Ethernet 1
B.Ethernet 2
C.Ethernet 3
D.Ethernet 4
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-911-3   132-S-911-3 examen

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Code d'Examen: 6007-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Agile Communication Environment(TM) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has geographically diverse sites and plans to deploy an Avaya ACE
Federation. Their
network includes a Communication Server 1000 (CS1000) system running a supported
software release,
IBM Lotus Sametime, and the associated end-user telephones and clients.
When planning the Federation architecture, which is the platform consideration?
A. An Avaya ACE Federation requires an AvayaACE High Availability (HA) configuration.
B. An AvayaACE Federation requires an AvayaACE Linux-based hardware platform.
C. An Avaya ACE Federation requires a Microsoft Office Communications Server (OCS)
serviceprovider.
D. An Avaya ACE Federation requires an Application Integration Engine (AIE) server.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A technician is verifying an Avaya ACE Hot Desking deployment. Avaya ACE and the
Application
Integration Engine (AIE) are installed, configured, and fully operational.
Ah Avaya ACE administrator previously configured a user ID and password for the Hotdesk
Virtual
Secretary User ID in the Avaya ACE GUI. The Hot Desking application configuration has
been
completed in the AIE GUI.
Which action should be taken to verify that the variable entered for the Hotdesk Virtual
Secretary User ID
in the AIE GUI is correct?
A. Using the Avaya ACE GUI, search for and list the user IDfor the Hotdesk virtual
secretary.Ensurethe
AvayaACE user ID matches the variable entered fur the Hotdesk Virtual Secretary User ID.
B. Using the AIEUser Synchronization tool, generate a report of valid user IDs. Ensure the
variable
enteredtot the Hotdesk Virtual Secretary User ID is listedin the synchronization report.
C. Using the Windows server console, retrieve the local users. Ensure the variable entered
for
theHotdeskVirtualSecretaryuser ID displays inthelist of local Windows user.
D. Ensure the variable entered for theHotdeskVirtual Secretary User ID in the
AIEGUIhasautomatically
populated duringthe AIE installation.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   6007-1   6007-1

NO.3 A technician has completed the installation and configuration of an Avaya ACE and
IBM Lotus
Sametime for an integration solution. The solution includes telephony client presence.
Which action should be taken to ensure the deployment was successful?
A. Log into the Sametime server and ensure the telephony presence plug-in has been added
to the
site.xml file.
B. Log into the Sametime Domino server and ensure the telephony presence plug-in has
beenadded to
theTCSPIconfiguration file.
C. Log into theAvayaACE GUI and ensure contactinformation for the Sametime Connect
client has been
automatically populated by Avaya ACE .
D. Log into the Sametime Connect client andensure that a telephony presence icon
appearsfor
theSametimeConnect client users who are configured for telephony presenceinformation in
AvayaACE .
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 6007-1   6007-1   6007-1

NO.4 A customer is deploying an Avaya ACE on Windows for a standalone configuration.
They are also
deploying Corporate Portal and Message Drop and Blast services. The network includes a
SIP-enabled
communication system and 500 end users.
How many Avaya ACE base software licenses are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 500
Answer: C

Avaya examen   6007-1   6007-1

NO.5 A global bank has an Avaya High Availability (HA) ACE system Installed, and wants to
deploy the Hot
Decking application. The customer wants to ensure high availability and reliability for
application users.
Which additional hardware and operating system is required beyond the Avaya HA ACE base
to
support the solution.?
A. One additional Linux server for the Avaya ACE base and two Linux or Windows servers to
host the
Application IntegrationEngine(AIE) software.
B. Two additional Linux servers for the AvayaACE base and twoLinux or Windows servers to
hostthe
AIE software.
C. TwoWindows servers to host the AIEsoftware.
D. No additional hardware, the AvayaACE and AIC software will co-reside on the same
server.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer plans to deploy an Avaya ACETM Application Integration Engine (AIE)
version 3.2. As part
of the definition of the project scope of work, the technician wants to ensure the appropriate
operating
system is installed on the host server.
Which software operating systems (OS) is supported?
A. 32-bitor 04-bit Windows 2003 OS
B. 32-bit or 04-bit Windows 2008 OS
C. 32-bit Windows 2003 OS or64-bit Windows 2008 R2 OS
D. 64-bit Windows 2008 OS only
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6007-1   6007-1 examen

NO.7 A technician is installing the Application Integration Engine (AIE) software in active
directory mode for a
standalone solution, the AIE software will be installed on a supported server with a supported
Windows
2008 operating system.
Which statement describes an installation prerequisite?
A. An existing version ApacheTomcat is running.
B. An existing version of Java Runtime Environment (JRE)is running.
C. TheWindows serveris configured with the role of DHCP Server.
D. TheWindows server is configured with the role of Web Server.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A mid-size enterprise is deploying an Avaya ACE IBM Lotus Sametime Integration
solution. The
customer network includes IBM Lotus Sametime, IBM Lotus Notes, and a communication
Server 1000
system and end-user telephones and clients.
A technician has a work order to install the Avaya ACE Technology Conferencing Service
Provider
Interface (TCSPI) on the Sametime server as part of the UC deployment.
Where can a copy of the latest version of the Avaya ACE TCSPI be obtained?
A. from the Avaya ACE GUIHelp menu
B. from the IBMLotus Sametime server
C. from the Domino server
D. from the IBM Lotus Notes catalog
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6007-1   certification 6007-1   6007-1 examen

NO.9 An existing Avaya ACE customer wants a solution that will work with its existing
customer resource
management (CRM) system to notify customers proactively about promotions or offers
relevant to their
individual needs. The customer has an Avaya ACE on Windows core solution and does not
want to
deploy additional hardware.
Which Avaya ACE solution matches the key capabilities that the customer requires?
A. Hot Desking
B. EventResponse Manager
C. Message Drop and Blast
D. WebBrowser and Office Add-ins.
Answer: D

certification Avaya   6007-1 examen   6007-1   certification 6007-1

NO.10 A technician is deploying a Microsoft Desktop Enablement (Web Browser and Office
Add-ins) solution
and has used the Avaya ACE Configuraor interface to build the add-in install packages for
the end
users.
Which action should be taken to verify the Avaya ACE configuration is valid?
A. Using the Avaya ACE GUI, ensureOfficeAddinEnabled and BrowserAddingEnableduser
groupsarepresentin the list of Avaya ACE usergroups.
B. Using the WebSphere Administrative Console, ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabledandBrowserAddingEnabledservicesare Started.
C. Using theWindows serverconsole,run the Addin_service_control.bat file and ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabled and BrowserAddingEnabled services are Started.
D. Using the Application Integration Engine (AIE) GUI Status window, ensure
theOffiecAddinEnabled and
BrowserAddingEnabled services are Started.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 6201-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Contact Center on Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two CommunicationManagerfeatures does the VALcircuit pack support? (Choose two.)
A. Music-an-hold
B. Voice over IP
C. Integrated Announcements
D. Local Announcements
Answer: C,D

Avaya   6201-1 examen   certification 6201-1   6201-1

NO.2 The Quick Credit call center opened at 8 a.m. on the Friday, the day after a holiday By8:30, the
customer service line had received 6 customercomplaints all1 stemming from calls to the center the day
before. Callers complained thatthey received the all agents are busy
recording but regardlesshow long
they waited, were never answered.
What caused callers to be queued even though the Quick Credit call center was closed onthe holiday?
A. The Communication Manager was down.
B. An agentforgotto log out.
C. The holiday recording was not functioning properly.
D. The holiday was not administered in the holiday tablet
Answer: B

Avaya   6201-1   6201-1   certification 6201-1   certification 6201-1

NO.3 Toactivate, which three options require an Avaya authorization password? (Choose three)
A. simultaneous CMS Supervisor logins
B. the number of agents thatthe CMS can report on
C. the number of users that can be administered in the CMS
D. the number of ACDs thatthe CMS system can monitor
E. features assigned to each user
Answer: A,D,E

Avaya examen   certification 6201-1   6201-1   6201-1   6201-1

NO.4 A customer just upgraded their CMS to releaseR16 from release Rt4. Theswitch is releaseCM4 and is
not going to be upgraded to CM 6untilnextweek
When the switch is upgraded,what needs to happen before the link will come up using theCM6 protocol?
A. Only the reporting adjunct in the switch needs to be changed to R16 CMS.
B. Only the switch release in the CMS needs to be changed to CM6.
C. Both the reporting adjunctthe switch and the switch release in the CMS need to be updated
D. It is not necessary fareither the reporting adjunct orthe switch release to change.
Answer: C

Avaya   certification 6201-1   6201-1   6201-1   6201-1   6201-1 examen

NO.5 A technician integratesthecustomer snetwork and links the CM reference between CM and CMS is
greater than 24 hours.
Whatcan be done to fix the problem?
A. Shutdown the CMS to the ak prompt level and adjust the BIOS time.
B. Run the script /cms/install/autotime to synchronize the Communication Manager's time to the CMS
C. In. CMS, login as root and use the /cms/datesync command to sync the CMS and CM time.
D. FromSolarislogin as root and use the date command
Answer: B

certification Avaya   6201-1   certification 6201-1   6201-1 examen

NO.6 A customer has purchased 5200 agent licenses and each agent has been assigned at least 3 skills.
Which two values would be a valid Data Storage Allocation entry for "Maximumagents lagged in"?
(Choose two)
A. 10400
B. 15600
C. 100000
D. 500000
Answer: A,B

Avaya   certification 6201-1   certification 6201-1

NO.7 When connecting the service PC to S8800, the cable connects the System Management Ethernet
connector port.
Which port is used when hooking the monitor to the CMS T5220?
A. SER MGT Port
B. NET MGT Port
C. NET 1Port
D. XVR-300XB port
Answer: A

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NO.8 In an active non-Expert agent selection (AES) environment, what is each hunt group known as?
A. Agent
B. Split
C. Skill
D. Vector
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 6201-1   certification 6201-1   6201-1

NO.9 A customer needs helpwith maintaining service leveltargets.
Which Advocate feature will make automated adjustments to overload settings?`
A. Dynamic Threshold Adjustment
B. Service Objective
C. Dynamic Percent Allocation
D. Vector Queuing Priorities
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click theexhibit button
A Miami basedmedical center is defining evacuation procedures for severe weather conditions The center
has decided to plan for two types evacuations, major and minor During a minor evacuation; the center
willstaff only a few medical answer line agents to answer critical callsmajor evacuation the answer line will
not be staffed instead of reaching alive agent, callers willreceive a pre-recordedinformation
Inthe example vector segment, what is represented by the Ein steps 2 and 3?
A. E is a standard vector code for evacuation
B. E has been administered as a Feature Access Code
C. Ehas a vector variable that is changed when an evacuation is required
D. E is assigned to a VDN that routes calls to an evacuation vector
Answer: D

Avaya   6201-1   6201-1   6201-1   6201-1

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Code d'Examen: 3102
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main
site
and Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

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NO.3 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been
asked to apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new
Application Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in
the Berlin location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating
Application Sequence drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the
Berlin location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

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NO.4 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that
the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session
Manager but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password
is valid In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again
in Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.5 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and
the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data,
using which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

Avaya   3102   3102   3102

NO.6 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a
user
name and password. Which statement best explains why a user name and password are
required?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption
process and subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are
used to login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and
authentication purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation.
For system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

certification Avaya   3102   3102   3102   3102

NO.10 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system
manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. Undefined
Answer: A,C,D

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Code d'Examen: 3104
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya one-X® UC Soft Clients Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Avaya product performs the SIP network routing for Avaya one-X® CES?
A. Session Manager
B. Application Enablement Services
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: A

Avaya   3104   3104   certification 3104   3104 examen
5. When setting up the Presence Server in Avaya one-X® CES, you see that the Management
Service must be established.
Which IP address is used for the host Management Service?
A. Session Manager
B. Communication Manager
C. System Manager
D. System Platform
Answer: C

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6. To prepare for the installation of the Avaya one-X® CES solution template, a new administrator
account was added to the admin security group in the enterprise Directory. When trying to login to
the Avaya one-X® CES server, you receive the error message The User name or password you
provided not recognized.
Which troubleshooting action should you take do to resolve problem?
A. Login to the Enterprise Directory and verify the user name.
B. Login as admin and change the user name in the Avaya one-X® CES server.
C. Login to the System Manager/User management/Users and synchronize the System manager
with the Avaya one-X® CES server.
D. Login to the System Platform and edit the user name.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   3104   certification 3104   3104
7. You are in the process of investigating an error in the General Logging log. You first look at the
systemOut.log and you see that the protocol Aspect is enabled.
What is the other General log file you need to check to determine what the problem is?
A. SNMP log file
B. SAL log file
C. Trace.log file
D. Avaya one-X® CES log file
Answer: C

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8. While setting up the interface to Avaya Aura® Conferencing, one of the values is the BCAPI
host.
Which IP address is the BCAPI host?
A. Avaya Web Conferencing
B. Bridge
C. Web Portal
D. Conference Manager
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 3104   3104
9. After the completion of Avaya one-X® CES solution template, you find that the transcoding
service
is unable to connect to the Transcoding Server in the Avaya one-X® CES system, you see that
the state is unavailable.
Which troubleshooting steps are needed to resolve problem?
A. Verify that the property values in the Transcoding server is Same as what is stated in the
System Manager server.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the transcoding server
Verify the Host IP address
Restart the Avaya one-X® CES server
B. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding directory is Present on the handset Server
Verify the Host IP address is the same as the loopback IP address
Restart the transcoding Server.
C. Ensure the /tmp/transcoding Server is the same as what is stated on the Avaya one-X CES
admin web site.
Determine that the /tmp/transcoding directory is present on the Avaya one-X CES server.
Verify the host IP address is same as the loopback IP address.
D. Update the Avaya one-X CES Transcoding Services value via the Admin page.
Verify that the Host IP address and the loopback IP address are not same.
Restart the Transcoding server.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   3104   certification 3104
10. You have a case where the calls to the user gets routed to Avaya one-X® Mobile and
voicemail at
the same time. You have verified that the user’s desktop telephone is set to Send all calls,
however, the Avaya one-X® Mobile device is disabled and the calls are registering as a call entry.
Which statement correctly describes the solution to this problem?
A. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all Calls on the mobile device when the Avaya
Deskphone is set to Block All Calls.
B. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Block All Calls.
C. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Block all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
D. Set Avaya one-X® Mobile client to Send all calls on the mobile device when Avaya Deskphone
is set to Send All Calls.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two servers are optional with regard to the Restart the CES solution? (Choose two)
A. Session Manager
B. LDAP
C. Communication Manager
D. Presence
Answer: B,D

certification Avaya   3104   certification 3104   3104

NO.3 While at a customer site, an out-of-memory space permanent generation (PermGen) error
occurs.
Which troubleshooting steps you perform so that error does not occur again?
A. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into Communication Manager as admin)
Type: /sbin/service/ reboot.
Installthe template
B. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into the Avaya one-X® CES server as admin)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Install all template
C. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into System Manager as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat reboot
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
D. Delete the template
Restart Tomcat (log into cdom as admin/su to root)
Type: /sbin/service tomcat restart
Login to the System Platform Web console
Install the template
Answer: D

Avaya   3104   certification 3104

NO.4 The Avaya one-X® Client Enablement Services (CES) has the choice of template sizes.
Which factor is used to decide the template size?
A. Extra feature purchased by the customer
B. The version of System Platform
C. The server type
D. The type of mobile devise that is being integrated into Avaya one-X® CES
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-900-7
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 You are developing IP Telephony bandwidth requirements for WAN traffic between two S87xx
sites. The client estimates that simultaneous non-IP Telephony traffic will occupy 1.5 Mbps. In
addition, they estimate that using G.729, 55 simultaneous IP calls need to be provided access to the
WAN link.
What estimated bandwidth will the IP Telephony traffic add to the WAN traffic?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. 275 Kbps
C. 1650 Kbps
D. 4675 Kbps
Answer: C

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NO.2 What needs to be considered at an Enterprise Survivability Server (ESS) location when
implementing an agent recording solution?
A. H.323 trunks
B. locally sourced announcements
C. Application Enablement Services (AES)
D. Separation of Bearer and Signaling (SBS)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your client is planning to implement IP Telephony on their recently installed S8500. y will have
local IP sets and IP connected remote users (IP Softphone). In addition, they need connectivity to a
limited-bandwidth WAN between headquarters and their manufacturing plant. The client is
interested in setting up network regions.
What are three reasons to consider network regions in your overall design? (Choose three.)
A. to associate parameters such as codecs and locations to groups of IP endpoints
B. to provide IP endpoints certain mandatory use of resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
C. to provide IP endpoints certain preference to use resources that belong in the same region as the
endpoint
D. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in multiple regions
E. to associate IP endpoints with a type of signaling resource (CLANS) to load balance registration
among the CLANS in the same region
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 The customer plans to add remote IP users when they implement VoIP on their network.
What information about the customer's data network do you need to know to verify that remote
users can be supported? (Choose three.)
A. codec administration
B. network region for each remote user
C. applications the remote user will be using
D. bandwidth the remote user will have access to
E. the average round trip between the VPN users and the voice network
Answer: C,D,E

Avaya examen   132-S-900-7   132-S-900-7

NO.5 Which of the following does a typical Cisco design include?
A. Right to Use for Call Manager
B. Right to Use for Growth
C. Right to Use for Phones
D. Right to Use for Redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.6 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. y are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: A,B

Avaya   132-S-900-7 examen   132-S-900-7

NO.7 Which two recommendations of a network assessment allow Avaya IP phones to boot up
properly with dynamic addressing? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP Site Specific Option 167 being set up correctly
B. DHCP Site Specific Option 176 being set up correctly
C. using Fast Spanning Tree Protocol (FSTP) at the port level
D. turning off Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at the switch level
Answer: B,C

Avaya   132-S-900-7 examen   132-S-900-7

NO.8 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP telephony endpoints are simultaneously connected to 10 digital
sets, 10 IP sets, and 5 CO trunks.
How many DSPs are in use if G.711 is incorporated?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 50
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 132-S-900-7   132-S-900-7 examen   132-S-900-7   132-S-900-7 examen

NO.9 A customer has two sites connected over a 512k serial WAN link. There are 40 employees at
the main site and 20 employees at the remote site. Since the server bank and all trunks terminate at
the main location, the customer has concerns about the bandwidth over the WAN link. They
request a network assessment.
Which two design considerations are pertinent to the bandwidth on the WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN capable Ethernet switch
B. telecommuters using IP Softphone to access network resources
C. number of voice calls going through the WAN link during peak time
D. graphic-based programs used on the network between the two sites
Answer: C,D

Avaya   certification 132-S-900-7   132-S-900-7 examen   132-S-900-7

NO.10 An Avaya customer with a large contact center is IP enabling their S87xx and will allow 25
users to work from home via IP Agent in the Telecommuter mode.
What is the minimum hardware required in the S87xx to provide this application?
A. one CLAN board only
B. one Media Processor board only
C. one CLAN and one Media Processor board
D. no hardware is required, only software.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: SABE501V
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 – Update)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A. Web Services
B. Logging
C. FileStore
D. Win32_x86
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A. BIAR
B. REP
C. Binary
D. BOMain
Answer: A

Business-Objects   SABE501V   SABE501V

NO.3 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA).? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Administrative accessibility
C. Email notification
D. Reliability
Answer: A,B,D

Business-Objects   certification SABE501V   SABE501V   certification SABE501V

NO.4 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A. Perl
B. Java
C. PHP
D. C++
Answer: B

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NO.5 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A. In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B. In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C. In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D. In the Event Server service properties
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A. Oracle Containers for J2EE
B. SAPNetweaver
C. JRun
D. Sun Java Application Server
Answer: A,B,D

Business-Objects examen   SABE501V examen   SABE501V   SABE501V examen

NO.7 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Set Configuration Template.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A. The latest data from the database
B. The oldest data from the database
C. The oldest successful instance
D. The newest successful instance
Answer: D

Business-Objects   certification SABE501V   certification SABE501V

NO.9 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A. Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B. Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C. Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D. Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which replication object would you schedule?
A. Replication Job
B. Replication List
C. Replication Connection
D. Replication Package
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 60-DSFA680
Nom d'Examen: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.2 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.3 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.5 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.6 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.7 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.8 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.9 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

Altiris   60-DSFA680   60-DSFA680   60-DSFA680

NO.13 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.14 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.15 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

Altiris   60-DSFA680   certification 60-DSFA680

NO.16 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.18 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.20 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 050-V710-SESECURID
Nom d'Examen: RSA (CSE RSA SecurID 7.1)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a component of the technology used within an RSA SecurID
token?
A. algorithm B.
private key C.
time source D.
seed record
Answer: B

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NO.2 To activate a Group on an Agent Host in another RSA ACE/Server Realm, you would
A. enable External Authorization.
B. edit the Realm Secret of the Agent Host.
C. mark the Agent Host "Open to All Locally Known Users".
D. duplicate the Agent Host record in the Group's home Realm.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In a Primary/Replica environment, administrative changes can be made only on a server in the
Primary instance.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Enabling the system parameter option "Store time of last login in token records"
A. increases authentication performance.
B. is required in order for Lock Manager to prevent replay attacks.
C. is required for accurate "Last Login" information in a Token Report.
D. only applies if the Agent Host is using the RSA ACE/Agent 5.0 Authentication Protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Offline Authentication feature is intended to allow
A. the capability for a user to temporarily disable the Agent software while the user is working
offline.
B. an RSA SecurID authentication to be processed by a Replica server when the Primary server
is offline.
C. a user to complete an RSA SecurID authentication through the local Agent if the local
Agent computer is offline.
D. several users to use a single RSA SecurID token so that they can share another user's
computer if their own computer is offline.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In Authentication Manager version 7.1 terminology, a "Server Node" is used to
A. Replicate the database in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
B. Gather and re-direct authentication requests from Agents to an available server.
C. Provide a stand-alone database available to either a Primary or Replica instance.
D. Provide additional authentication services in either a Primary or Replica instance cluster.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 050-SEPRODLP-01
Nom d'Examen: RSA (RSA Certified SE Professional in Data Loss Protection)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the default selection for components to include when installing the Enterprise Manager
software?
A.Enterprise Manager only
B.Enterprise Coordinator only
C.Enterprise Manager and Enterprise Coordinator
D.No components are selected by default
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which RSA DLP deployment requires the use of the Enterprise Coordinator?
A.RSA DLP Network
B.RSA DLP Integrator
C.RSA DLP Datacenter
D.RSA DLP Enterprise Edition
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the four types of RSA DLP Network Appliances?
A.Controller, Sensor, ICAP Server, and Monitor
B.ICAP Server, Sensor, Monitor, and Interceptor
C.Sensor, ICAP Server, Investigator, and Controller
D.Controller, Interceptor, Sensor, and ICAP Server
Answer: D

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NO.4 During the installation of RSA DLP, when should you specify a port number to connect to the database
server for RSA DLP?
A.Never
B.Always
C.Only if you require SMTP communication to the server
D.Only if the database administrator provides a static port number to connect to the database
Answer: C

RSA   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01

NO.5 Which security permission does the Domain Admin user require when installing the Enterprise
Manager?
A.Root
B.System admin
C.Run as a service
D.Run as an admin
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the minimum length for the Enterprise Manager admin account password?
A.6 characters
B.8 characters
C.10 characters
D.There is no minimum requirement
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the name of the log file that is stored in the /temp directory once a RSA DLP installation has
completed, which provides a summary of the installation?
A.Install.log
B.Config.log
C.Messages.log
D.RSA DLPInstall.log
Answer: D

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NO.8 What requirement do you need to meet if you choose to create a Sample RSA DLP Site during the
installation process?
A.You must enable FIPS encryption on the machine
B.You must have at least 128 GB of RAM available on the machine
C.You must have at least 2 TB of storage available on the machine
D.The Enterprise Manager and Enterprise Coordinator must be installed on the same machine
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the default login name used to access the Enterprise Manager?
A.Root
B.Admin
C.System
D.Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which database software is used by the RSA DLP Enterprise Manager to store configuration files,
incidents and events?
A.Oracle
B.Sybase
C.Microsoft SQL Server
D.RSA Proprietary
Answer: C

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